Checked 29 September 2026. Qualifying marks are official (TN memo 27.08.2026, UP memo 17.09.2026, Karnataka memo 23.09.2026 and the DEST letter of 19.12.2022). Paper-I deletions differ by circle, so the raw floor does too. Last-selected marks are our reading of the published AP and Odisha 2025 result lists; no circle publishes a cut-off table. 2026 results, including supplementary lists, were still arriving circle by circle on 29 September 2026.
None of the result memos we read prints a “cut-off” for the PA/SA LDCE. What each of them publishes is a result memo with the qualifying marks, the vacancies and the list of selected candidates in merit order. From those three things you can work out the two numbers that matter: the qualifying mark, a percentage that is the same everywhere (the raw figure moves only if questions are deleted), and the last-selected mark, which varies by circle and year because it depends on how many posts there were and how well that circle’s candidates did.
This guide puts both side by side. The qualifying marks come straight from the 2026 result memos of Tamil Nadu (27.08.2026), Uttar Pradesh (17.09.2026) and Karnataka (23.09.2026) and the DEST letter of 19.12.2022. The last-selected marks are our reading of the Andhra Pradesh and Odisha 2025 result lists, the two most recent complete lists we could read. We print no names or roll numbers.
Qualifying marks: the floor, the same in every circle
| Category | Paper-I | On 100 | On 98 (TN 2026) | DEST (of 25) |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| UR (also OBC and EWS) | 40% | 40 | 39.2 | 18.75 (75%) |
| SC | 33% | 33 | 32.34 | 15 (60%) |
| ST | 33% | 33 | 32.34 | 15 (60%) |
| PwBD | 33% | 33 | 32.34 | 15 (60%); visually handicapped exempt |
Official: Tamil Nadu memo REP/4-1/2026-CON-I dated 27.08.2026 (Paper-I maximum 98 after two questions were deleted); DEST from the Directorate letter of 19.12.2022; VH exemption from the letter of 21.11.2022.
Deleted questions differ by circle, so the raw floor does too
The percentages are the same everywhere, but in 2026 the circles did not delete the same number of Paper-I questions, so the paper maximum and the raw qualifying mark were different from circle to circle. Read your own circle’s result memo; do not borrow another circle’s figure.
| Circle (2026) | Deleted | Maximum | UR (also OBC, EWS) | SC / ST / PwBD | Memo |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Tamil Nadu | 2 | 98 | 39.2 | 32.34 | 27.08.2026 |
| Uttar Pradesh | 3 | 97 | 38.8 | 32.01 | 17.09.2026 |
| Karnataka | 5 | 95 | 38 | 32 | 23.09.2026 |
Official: the three result memos. Karnataka prints whole numbers and cites DoP letter A-34012/02/2022-DE dated 21.09.2023 for fixing the floor after deletions. Uttar Pradesh also prints 35.89 (37%) for OBC and EWS candidates, but only for the GDS competitive exam; in its LDCE the UR mark applies to them.
Two details in the first table catch people out. First, when questions are deleted the percentage is applied to the reduced maximum, so in Tamil Nadu’s 2026 exam the UR floor was 39.2, not 40. Second, OBC and EWS candidates get no lower mark in this exam. The Tamil Nadu memo states it in so many words: the LDCE “is a promotional examination” and there is no reservation in promotion for OBC and EWS, so the UR mark applies to them. Odisha and Andhra Pradesh applied the same rule in 2025. That rule is about the LDCE, which is a promotion. The notifications still reprint the 2019 table with OBC at 37%, and for the GDS competitive exam — which the rules treat as direct recruitment — that printed 37% is the figure the notification gives; none of the result memos we read states a separate GDS mark.
Where other pages get this wrong
OBC and EWS candidates must reach the UR mark — 40% in Paper-I and 75% in the DEST — in the PA/SA LDCE.
Commonly published instead: “OBC 37%” and “EWS 37%” in Paper-I, and an OBC/EWS DEST mark of 70%.
Those figures are real, but they come from the 2019 letters (Annexure C of 10.05.2019 and its first amendment), which set one table for all the Department’s exams, including the ones filled by direct recruitment. In the LDCE, which is a promotion, the 2026 Tamil Nadu result applies UR 40% to OBC and EWS (the GDS competitive exam is direct recruitment, and its notification still prints 37%), and the 19.12.2022 letter moved the DEST to 75% for “Gen/OBC/EWS” in any case. An older page on this site still prints 37%.
What it took to be selected in 2025
| Circle (2025) | Posts | UR last selected | SC | ST | PwBD | Top mark |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Andhra Pradesh | 99 | 76 | 70 | 65 | not readable | 81 |
| Odisha | 50 | 60 | 60 | 62 (one candidate, on merit) | 38 (OH) | 75 |
Our reading of the result lists: AP RE/3-5/R/2025 dated 16.09.2025 and Odisha RE/30-23/2025(PA/SA) dated 17.09.2025 (official). Marks are out of 100 in Paper-I. The AP figures are the marks at which tied candidates were split — some on that mark were selected and some were not.
From the tables above. Sixteen marks separated the two circles’ last UR selections in the same year, on the same paper pattern.
The spread is the single most useful fact on this page. In 2025 a UR candidate with 65 was comfortably selected in Odisha and nowhere near selection in Andhra Pradesh. Andhra Pradesh had 99 posts and Odisha 50, so more posts did not mean an easier list — the size and strength of each circle’s pool of eligible MTS, Postmen and Mail Guards decided it. The result memos we read do not print how many candidates appeared, so the pool size cannot be read from the documents.
Ties are broken by seniority, not by the DEST
Andhra Pradesh’s 2025 memo lists candidates who were “in the zone of consideration” but not selected because others had the same mark. Three UR candidates on 76, three SC candidates on 70 and one ST candidate on 65 missed out that way. The memo says the inter-se order of equal marks was decided under the Directorate’s letter No. 04-08/2009-SPN-I dated 11.12.2020, and Tamil Nadu cites the same letter in 2026. DEST marks, which appear in the list beside each name, are not what breaks a tie: the DEST is qualifying only.
It happened again in 2026. Andhra Pradesh’s supplementary result of 29.09.2026, which filled posts that candidates selected on 25.08.2026 had declined, lists six UR candidates on 74 and one SC candidate on 68 who were in the zone of consideration but not selected: candidates on equal marks were ordered by seniority and the posts ran out before their turn. So in Andhra Pradesh in 2026 a UR mark of 74 out of 100 was not enough for the last posts, even after the declined posts were refilled. The memo adds that no LGO post was left for Category B or GDS candidates in 2026 apart from one PwBD post carried to 2027.
| Rule | What the result memos say | Source |
|---|---|---|
| Merit | Paper-I marks only; DEST is qualifying | AP 2025, TN 2026 |
| Equal marks | Inter-se seniority under letter 04-08/2009-SPN-I dated 11.12.2020 | AP 2025, TN 2026 |
| Merit list | One list for the whole circle (letter X-12/6/2021-SPN-II dated 31.12.2021) | AP 2025, TN 2026 |
| Allotment | Merit-cum-preference for cadre, then division (letter W-04/8/2022-SPN-I dated 26.10.2023) | AP 2025, TN 2026 |
| Wait list | None; the next in merit is taken only if a selected candidate declines, through a supplementary result | Annexure C as amended, 2019; NE 28.09.2026, AP 29.09.2026 |
| Declining again | A candidate who declined promotion earlier is promoted only one year after the last declination | TN 2026 (letter 06.03.2023) |
Official, from the result memos and the letters they cite.
That is what a supplementary result is. North East Circle issued one on 28.09.2026 to fill three UR posts left when three selected candidates declined promotion after its first result of 14.08.2026, and Andhra Pradesh issued one on 29.09.2026. If you were just below the line in the first list, watch for your circle’s supplementary list in the weeks after it.
A high mark can still miss a post: preferences
The Andhra Pradesh 2025 memo also lists three candidates who were within the merit zone but could not be allotted a post because the cadres or divisions they had opted for were full when their turn came. Their marks were high.
| Category | Paper-I mark | Reason printed |
|---|---|---|
| UR | 80 | Limited preferences opted for divisions |
| SC | 71 | Limited options for units |
| ST | 65 | Limited cadre options |
Official: AP RE/3-5/R/2025 dated 16.09.2025, para 7. Names omitted.
An 80 out of 100 was among the highest marks in the whole circle that year (the top mark was 81), and it still produced no post because the candidate listed too few divisions. The preference form is handed over at the DEST in most circles. If you would accept a post in any division, say so on the form; if you would not, understand that a narrow list is a real risk and not a formality. Tamil Nadu’s 2026 memo adds that no request to change the allotted division will be entertained afterwards.
Where would your Paper-I score have landed?
Enter a Paper-I score (from a mock or your own marks) and your category. OBC and EWS candidates are checked as UR, which is how Tamil Nadu applied the 2026 rule.
Qualifying: 40% UR, 33% SC/ST/PwBD of the paper maximum (TN memo 27.08.2026). The number of deleted questions differed by circle in 2026, so pick your own circle’s maximum; Karnataka printed whole-number floors on 95 (38 and 32), so the SC/ST/PwBD figure shown here (31.35) is our unrounded arithmetic. Last-selected marks are our reading of the published 2025 result lists: Andhra Pradesh (UR 76, SC 70, ST 65; no PwBD figure) and Odisha (UR 60, SC 60, ST 62; PwBD 38 is an orthopaedically handicapped candidate, and a VH candidate was selected on 48). Clearing a mark does not guarantee a post: allotment also follows your cadre and division preferences.
2026 results: which circles have declared
| Circle | DEST | Result | Posts |
|---|---|---|---|
| Tamil Nadu | 16.08.2026 | 27.08.2026 | 357 |
| Andhra Pradesh | 02.08.2026 | 25.08.2026; supplementary 29.09.2026 | not restated in the supplementary memo |
| North East | 12.08.2026 | 14.08.2026; supplementary 28.09.2026 | not restated in the supplementary memo |
| Chhattisgarh | 13.09.2026 | 16.09.2026 | 14 |
| Uttar Pradesh | 02.09.2026 | 17.09.2026 | in the memo’s annexure |
| Karnataka | 16.08.2026 | 23.09.2026 | 243 |
| Gujarat | 06.09.2026 | 24.09.2026 | 152 |
Official: the circle result memos listed under Sources. The dates of the first AP and NE results are as cited in their supplementary memos. Circles not listed had not published a result we could find on 29.09.2026.
Karnataka and Gujarat both say they drew their results under a Directorate letter of 22.09.2026 on dies-non, EOL, unauthorised absence and the senior-junior clause. What that letter says about eligibility is in the eligibility guide in this series.
Tamil Nadu 2026: the first result of this cycle
Tamil Nadu declared its 2026 result on 27.08.2026, eleven days after its DEST of 16.08.2026. It had 357 posts across the three cadres, the largest of the 2026 circle lists we could read, and it applied the qualifying marks on a maximum of 98 because two questions were deleted under the Directorate’s standard procedure. The memo does not print a last-selected mark, and the merit list is a scanned image, so we have not derived one.
| Cadre | UR | SC | ST | Total | PwBD |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| PA (Circle and Regional Offices) | 1 | 0 | 1 | 2 | 0 |
| PA (Post Offices) | 213 | 11 | 49 | 273 | 12 |
| SA | 64 | 12 | 6 | 82 | 4 |
| Total | 278 | 23 | 56 | 357 | 16 |
Official: TN memo 27.08.2026, para 4. One PwBD (others) post was carried forward from 2025.
Two sentences in the memo show how posts move when the LDCE cannot fill them. The ST posts were “carried forward to CE and filled up” — that is, passed to the competitive exam for Gramin Dak Sevaks held on the same paper — and there was no eligible candidate for the PwBD (others) post under either exam. Selected GDS candidates receive an order of appointment, not promotion, because a GDS entering the cadre is treated as a direct recruit.
Odisha 2025: who actually got selected
Odisha’s 2025 list is small enough to read in full. Of the 50 selected, 49 were Category A officials and one was a Category B official — a visually handicapped UR candidate with 48, selected in the UR category against the horizontal VH slot and exempt from the DEST. Most of the selected were Postmen; the list also has MTS, Mail Guards, Mail Overseers and a Head Postman. The lowest DEST score among those selected was 18.56, from an SC candidate, whose floor was 15.
| Item | Odisha 2025 |
|---|---|
| Selected | 50 (49 Category A, 1 Category B) |
| Highest Paper-I mark | 75 |
| Lowest UR selected | 60 |
| Lowest PwBD selected | 38 (OH); 48 (VH, Category B) |
| Lowest DEST among selected | 18.56 (SC) |
| Exam and DEST | 17.08.2025 and 14.09.2025 |
Our count from the Odisha result list RE/30-23/2025(PA/SA) dated 17.09.2025 (official).
What score to aim for
Our reading of two data points, not a forecast: a UR candidate who wants to be safe in most circles should aim above the Andhra Pradesh 2025 figure of 76, which in a 100-question paper means about 76 right answers with nothing left blank on guesswork. That is a demanding target. Our suggestion is to plan on taking most of the 40 reasoning and arithmetic marks, because those are the blocks where practice converts most directly into marks; the result lists do not print section-wise scores, so this is advice, not a finding. In a smaller circle, or one like Odisha in 2025, a mark in the low 60s has been enough. Check your own circle’s last result memo on the India Post circle website before you set a number.
Practise it, don't just read it
Every mark above the floor comes from somewhere in the blueprint. Arithmetic and general awareness are both in the library now.
The ProSyllabus India Post PA/SA library has 13 ten-question quizzes: two on basic arithmetic (percentage, profit and interest; number system, ratio, work and speed), three on general awareness (Indian geography; polity and civics; Indian culture and the freedom struggle), one on ethics and conduct, one on the organisation of the Department and the Citizen’s Charter, three on products and services (Postal Life Insurance and social-security schemes; money remittance and India Post Payments Bank; Speed Post, parcels and value-added services), one on IT modernisation, and two on savings schemes. There is no reasoning quiz yet.
What is the qualifying mark in the PA/SA LDCE?
40% of the Paper-I maximum for UR, OBC and EWS candidates and 33% for SC, ST and PwBD candidates.
Is there a lower qualifying mark for OBC candidates?
No. The LDCE is a promotion exam and there is no OBC or EWS reservation in promotion, so the UR mark applies.
What is the DEST qualifying mark?
18.75 of 25 (75%) for UR, OBC and EWS, and 15 of 25 (60%) for SC, ST and PwBD.
What was the PA/SA LDCE cut-off in Andhra Pradesh in 2025?
Our reading of the result list: UR 76, SC 70 and ST 65 out of 100, the marks at which tied candidates were split.
What was the PA/SA LDCE cut-off in Odisha in 2025?
Our reading of the result list: the lowest UR and SC candidates selected had 60 out of 100.
How are candidates with equal marks ranked?
By inter-se seniority under the Directorate letter of 11.12.2020, not by DEST marks.
Why was the Tamil Nadu 2026 qualifying mark 39.2?
Two questions were deleted, so the paper was out of 98, and 40% of 98 is 39.2.
Is the Paper-I maximum the same in every circle in 2026?
No. Circles deleted different numbers of questions: Tamil Nadu 2 (out of 98), Uttar Pradesh 3 (out of 97) and Karnataka 5 (out of 95), so the raw qualifying mark differs too.
What is a supplementary result?
A second list that fills posts declined by candidates selected in the first result, taking the next candidates in merit. North East and Andhra Pradesh issued supplementary 2026 results on 28 and 29 September 2026.
Can I be selected on merit and still get no post?
Yes. Allotment follows your cadre and division preferences, and a candidate whose preferred units are full when their turn comes gets no allotment.
Is there a wait list?
No. The next candidate in merit is taken only if a selected candidate declines.
Does the DEST score count in merit?
No. Merit is drawn on Paper-I only; the DEST is qualifying.
More in this series
- PA/SA Paper-I: marks by topic
- PA/SA eligibility: A, B and GDS
- PA/SA DEST: 1,000 key depressions
- PA/SA LDCE 2026 vacancies
- Postman / Mail Guard / MTS pattern
- India Post PA/SA LDCE (LGO): syllabus, pattern and the merit rule
- GDS to MTS, Postman and Mail Guard: syllabus and exam pattern
- India Post PA / SA / MTS departmental: alerts and updates
Sources
- official — Tamil Nadu Circle — Memo REP/4-1/2026-CON-I dated 27.08.2026, result of PA/SA LDCE and GDS competitive exam 2026
- official — UP Circle — Memo ADR (Con.)/M-75/LGOs & GDS to PA/SA/Exam/2026/4 dated 17.09.2026, result of PA/SA LDCE and GDS competitive exam 2026 (3 Paper-I questions deleted, maximum 97)
- official — Karnataka Circle — Memo R&E/1-12/2026 dated 23.09.2026, result of PA/SA LDCE 2026 (5 Paper-I questions deleted, maximum 95; drawn under DoP letter W-04/1/2026-SPN-I-DOP dated 22.09.2026)
- official — Gujarat Circle — R&E/2-32/2026/Con./II dated 24.09.2026, result of PA/SA LDCE and GDS competitive exam 2026 (drawn under DoP letter W-4/1/2026-SPN-I-DOP dated 22.09.2026)
- official — Chhattisgarh Circle — Memo AD(S)/Con/PA-SA/Exam/2026 dated 16.09.2026, result of PA/SA LDCE 2026
- official — North East Circle — Staff/7/25-01/LDCE/2026 dated 28.09.2026, supplementary result of PA/SA LDCE 2026
- official — Andhra Pradesh Circle — RE/3-5/R/2026 dated 29.09.2026, supplementary result of PA/SA LDCE 2026
- official — Andhra Pradesh Circle — RE/3-5/R/2025 dated 16.09.2025, result of PA/SA LDCE 2025
- official — Odisha Circle — RE/30-23/2025(PA/SA) dated 17.09.2025, result of PA/SA LDCE 2025
- official — Karnataka Circle — LDCE for PA/SA 2026 notification R&E/1-12/2026 dated 11.05.2026, with Annexure C (10.05.2019), every amendment letter and the PA/SA Recruitment Rules 2022
official = a document published by the conducting body. reported = a news or coaching site we could not check against an original. Where sources disagree this page says so rather than picking one.












