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Odisha CPET Exam Pattern: 100 MCQs, 100 Minutes, −0.25 Negative Marking

How the Odisha CPET paper is built — one offline OMR paper per subject, 100 questions, +1 and −0.25, 100 minutes in 2026 (80 in 2025), 50 subjects, the CBCS 2019 syllabus and the answer keys.

By ProSyllabus Admin
Updated 3 days agoOdisha CPET · Exam Pattern · PG Entrance
#Odisha CPET exam pattern#CPET negative marking#Odisha CPET syllabus#CPET 2027#SAMS PG entrance exam#Odisha CPET previous year question paper
Odisha CPET Exam Pattern: 100 MCQs, 100 Minutes, −0.25 Negative Marking

Checked 25 September 2026. From the HED Common Prospectus for P.G. admission 2026-27, the SSB 2026 schedule, the 2026 provisional and final answer keys, and the 2025 test booklets. The 2027 prospectus is not out.

The Common P.G. Entrance Test (CPET) is Odisha's single entrance for master's programmes at the State's public universities and the colleges on the SAMS portal — 135 institutions and 32,571 seats in 2026-27. Two bodies share the job: the State Selection Board (SSB), Odisha sets and holds the exam, and the Higher Education Department runs applications and admission through SAMS. The pattern is short to state and widely mis-stated online. This guide takes it from the prospectus and the actual papers.

Where other pages get this wrong

Each Odisha CPET paper has 100 questions, carries −0.25 for a wrong answer and ran for 100 minutes in 2026.

Commonly published instead: "70 MCQs (40 core + 30 elective), 90 minutes, no negative marking."

The 2026-27 Common Prospectus: 100 multiple-choice questions, one mark each, "−0.25" for each wrong answer, and "Each paper will be of 100-minute duration" — which matches the SSB sittings of 10:00–11:40 and 3:00–4:40. The 2025 booklets say "Time Allowed: 80 Minutes". There are no sections.

100
MCQs per paper, four options each
100 min
in 2026 (80 min in 2025)
−0.25
for each wrong answer
50
entrance subjects in 2026 (49 in 2025)

HED Common Prospectus 2026-27; SSB schedules; CPET-2025 booklets.

The pattern

ItemWhat the documents say
ModeOffline — "The answers will have to be marked on OMR sheets"
Questions100 multiple-choice questions, options (A) to (D); full marks 100
Marking+1 for a right answer, −0.25 for a wrong one; marking more than one option counts as wrong
Duration100 minutes in 2026; 80 minutes in 2025
SectionsNone — one paper per entrance subject
Syllabus"As per the CBCS UG model syllabus 2019"; multidisciplinary subjects draw on the relevant UG curricula by relative importance
Subjects per candidateUp to 3 entrance subjects and up to 5 P.G. subjects on the application; later, at choice locking, 1 to 10 subject-and-institution options
PwD20 minutes extra per hour (about 33 minutes on a 100-minute paper); a scribe one step below the candidate's qualification, arranged by the candidate (SSB notice, 2026)
CalculatorsNot allowed, including scientific calculators
Keep after the examThe used test booklet and the candidate copy of the OMR

Common Prospectus 2026-27 §7.1.3; SSB schedule and PwD notice 2026; CPET-2025 test-booklet instructions.

Work out your CPET mark

Enter your right and wrong answers from a 100-question mock. Blank questions score zero.

Common Prospectus 2026-27 (§7.1.3) and the CPET booklet instructions: +1 for a right answer, −0.25 for a wrong one, and marking more than one option counts as wrong. The calculator uses that formula only; it does not model questions the final key marks for everyone or answers it accepts in more than one form.

Should you guess? With four options and a quarter-mark penalty, a blind guess is worth +0.0625 marks on average (a one-in-four chance of +1 against three-in-four of −0.25), and a guess after ruling out one option is worth about +0.17. So the penalty mainly punishes confident wrong answers; if you can eliminate even one option, answering pays. What does not pay is marking two options — that is scored as wrong.

The 2026 timetable

Date (2026)1st sitting (10:00–11:40)2nd sitting (3:00–4:40)
Tue 5 MayCommerce; Biotechnology; SociologyEnvironmental Science; Education; Anthropology (Arts)
Wed 6 MayGeology; Wildlife & Biodiversity Conservation; EnglishPhysics
Thu 7 MayPublic Health; Marine Science–Oceanography; OdiaGeography; Botany; Material Science
Fri 8 MayHome Science; Law; Computer ScienceFood Science & Technology; History; Mathematics
Sat 9 MayPublic AdministrationPolitical Science; Microbiology
Mon 11 MayChemistry; Sanskrit; EconomicsBusiness Administration; Hindi; Atmospheric Science; Marine Biology
Tue 12 MayJournalism; Electronic Science; Anthropology (Science); Linguistics; Population Studies; Santali; UrduZoology
Wed 13 MayPMIR/IRPM; PhilosophyPsychology
Thu 14 MayStatistics; Women StudiesLibrary & Information Science
Fri 15 May – Sat 16 MaySocial Work; Rural DevelopmentTourism and Travel Studies; Yoga & Naturopathy

SSB notice SSB(EX)03/2026/384/SSB of 06.04.2026. The prospectus does not say what happens if two of a candidate's three subjects fall in the same sitting, so check before choosing.

What the 2026 answer keys showed

SSB published provisional keys for all 50 subjects on 19 May 2026, took objections at ₹200 a question from 20 May (11 a.m.) to 22 May, and issued final keys on 19 June. Comparing the two, 67 answers changed in 23 subjects; the final key accepts two or three options on several questions, and four questions (Law Q61, Mathematics Q44, Chemistry Q44 and Q75) carry full marks for everyone "irrespective of attempted or unattempted".

Answers changed between the provisional and final 2026 keys
Home Science9
Business Administration9
Mathematics7
Economics6
Law6
Botany5
Other 17 subjects25

Our comparison of SSB's provisional (19.05.2026) and final (19.06.2026) answer keys.

The lesson: check the provisional key for your subject and object where you are sure — at ₹200 a question, non-refundable. In 2026 an average subject had more than one answer changed.

What the answer-key rules mean for your mark

Three rules in the 2026 final key change how a mark is counted. Where the final key lists two or three correct options for a question (Mathematics Q5 accepts A, B and D; Biotechnology Q18 A and B, Q68 B and C), any one of them earns the mark. Where a question is starred, "full marks will be awarded to all candidates, irrespective of attempted or unattempted" — four such questions in 2026. And a response with two options marked is scored as wrong, attracting the 0.25 deduction. So after the provisional key, check every question you left blank or double-marked as well as the ones you answered.

Centres and previous papers

The prospectus speaks of 30 entrance examination centres and asks each applicant to pick an examination zone; SSB's 2026 PwD notice says the test was held "in all the District Headquarters of the State". The SAMS portal carries previous papers for every year since 2020-21. They are scanned booklets, not searchable text, but they show the style of question for each subject better than any summary.

YearPapers on SAMS
202548 (47 downloadable; the Gender Studies link returned an error)
202448
202343
2020-21 to 2022-23Listed on the same page

SAMS P.G. previous-year question papers page, read 25 Sep 2026.

The syllabus is the UG syllabus

There is no separate CPET syllabus. Questions follow the CBCS UG model syllabus 2019 for the subject, and the prospectus tells candidates to go through the previous papers on the SAMS portal, which carries papers from 2020-21 to 2025-26 (48 for 2025). Each entrance subject feeds one or more P.G. courses: Commerce leads to M.Com and its variants and MFC; Botany to Botany and Life Science; Biotechnology to Biochemistry, Bioinformatics and Biotechnology. The prospectus does not state the language of the papers; the 2025 Physics and Commerce booklets we read were in English.

Change 2025 → 2026Detail
Duration80 minutes → 100 minutes, for the same 100 questions
SittingsThree a day (1 h 20 m each) → two a day
Subjects49 → 50; Material Science added; "Food Science & Nutrition" listed as "Food Science & Technology"
MeritCPET marks only in both years (the 80:20 career-marks rule was dropped from 2025-26)

SSB schedules 2025 and 2026; CPET-2025 booklets; Common Prospectus 2026-27.

Practise it, don't just read it

Twenty extra minutes in 2026 bought time to think, not to guess. Timed topic quizzes at a minute a question are the right rehearsal.

The ProSyllabus Odisha CPET library has topic quizzes for English, Political Science, Economics, Botany and Commerce — the first one is free.

Start a Odisha CPET quiz →

What is the Odisha CPET exam pattern?

One offline OMR paper per entrance subject: 100 multiple-choice questions, +1 right and −0.25 wrong, 100 minutes in 2026.

Is there negative marking in Odisha CPET?

Yes, 0.25 marks for each wrong answer; marking two options counts as wrong.

How long is the Odisha CPET paper?

100 minutes in 2026; it was 80 minutes in 2025.

Is Odisha CPET online or offline?

Offline, on OMR sheets, at district-headquarters centres.

Who conducts Odisha CPET?

The State Selection Board, Odisha, since 2023-24; the Higher Education Department runs application and admission through SAMS. OSHEC ran it from 2020-21 to 2022-23.

What is the Odisha CPET syllabus?

The CBCS UG model syllabus 2019 for the subject; there is no separate CPET syllabus.

How many subjects can I take in CPET?

Up to three entrance subjects and five P.G. subjects on the application; at choice locking you then list 1 to 10 subject-and-institution options.

Are Odisha CPET previous papers available?

Yes, on the SAMS P.G. portal, for 2020-21 to 2025-26.

How much does a CPET answer-key objection cost?

₹200 per question, online and non-refundable.

Is there a qualifying mark in Odisha CPET?

None is stated. Published SAMS cut-offs have even gone below zero — for example Berhampur University's LL.M. ST seat closed at −0.75 in the first round of 2026.

What if the answer key accepts two answers?

In the 2026 final key some questions accept two or three options; marking any accepted option earns the mark.

How many questions should I attempt in Odisha CPET?

No rule sets a number. With −0.25 for a wrong answer, answering pays on average once you can rule out at least one option; double-marking always counts as wrong.

Can I take the used question booklet home after CPET?

Yes. The booklet instructions let candidates keep the used test booklet and the candidate copy of the OMR sheet.

Is there extra time for PwD candidates in CPET?

Yes, 20 minutes per hour, and a scribe one step below the candidate's qualification, arranged by the candidate.

What language is the Odisha CPET paper in?

The prospectus does not say; the 2025 Physics and Commerce booklets we read were in English.

Where is the Odisha CPET exam centre?

You choose an examination zone on the application; the prospectus speaks of 30 centres and SSB's 2026 notice of district headquarters, so check your admit card.

Does Odisha CPET have sections?

No. Each paper is a single 100-question section on one subject.

This chapter is part of the Odisha CPET (Common PG Entrance Test) Board ExaminationExplore every chapter — summary, notes, extra questions & MCQ quizzes
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More on Odisha CPET (Common PG Entrance Test)6 guides

Odisha CPET 2027: Expected Timeline, How to Apply and a Study PlanWhat the 2025 and 2026 cycles show about CPET 2027 — application from late February, exam in May — how the SAMS application works, the answer-key objection window, previous papers and a study plan.Odisha CPET Counselling: Choice Locking, Freeze, Float, Slide and Phase-IIHow SAMS P.G. admission works after CPET — ten choices, three Phase-I rounds, Freeze/Float/Slide and the new Alter option, the waiting-list round, Phase-II, the CLC and refunds, with 2026 dates.Odisha CPET Eligibility, Reservation and Weightage: How Merit Is MadeWho can apply for Odisha P.G. seats — 45% or CGPA 5.0 (50% for 15 courses), 24 UG credits — plus SC, ST, SEBC, PwD and ex-servicemen shares, NCC/NSS/sports weightage and the tie-break, with a checker.Odisha CPET Seats and Fees: 32,571 Seats, 135 Institutes, Fee-Free SeatsWhere the 32,571 Odisha P.G. seats are — 21 universities and 114 colleges, regular and self-financing — the ₹500 application fee, and the new Gyanodaya scheme that makes regular P.G. seats fee-free.Odisha CPET Cut-off Marks 2026 and 2025: Utkal, Ravenshaw, BerhampurOfficial first-round closing marks from SAMS for 14 subjects at Utkal University by category, 2025 and 2026, with Ravenshaw, Berhampur and Sambalpur, what a CPET cut-off means and a checker.Alerts and Updates for Odisha CPET (Common PG Entrance Test)Tracking the state-wide Odisha PG admission cycle now at its second-phase merit list, with the conducting body, the counselling calendar and the disputed exam pattern each attributed to a named source

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