Checked 29 September 2026. From the ESIC HQ action plan of 27.06.2025 for the skill tests of 6 July 2025 and the HQ scheme letter of 22.11.2024, which sets the Computer Skill Test benchmark at 17 of 50. The scoring method and any shorthand pass standard are not published. The next sitting had not been notified on 29 September 2026.
Four of the six ESIC LDCE tests end with a practical test the day after the CBT. SSO, LDC, PA and Stenographer candidates sit a 30-minute Computer Skill Test (CST) of 50 marks, and PA and Stenographer candidates also sit a shorthand test. The CBT was arranged through IBPS; the skill tests were arranged by the Regional Offices, which fixed the venues and the stenography instructors. The Computer Skill Test is expressly "qualifying in nature", with a benchmark of 17 marks out of 50; the documents give no such label or pass standard for the shorthand tests. This guide gives what each part asks, the dictation and transcription times, the arithmetic behind the speeds, the exemption for candidates with disabilities, and a timer for practice. ProSyllabus is an independent study site, not part of the Employees’ State Insurance Corporation. Every rule here is quoted or summarised from ESIC circulars and office orders; your Regional Office or Headquarters decides every individual case.
Where other pages get this wrong
The ESIC LDCE skill tests are a 50-mark, 30-minute qualifying Computer Skill Test for SSO, LDC, PA and Stenographer, with a benchmark of 17 of 50 and, for SSO, PA and Stenographer, three printed parts (PowerPoint 10, Word typing 20, Excel 20), and a shorthand test at 80 wpm for Stenographer and 100 or 120 wpm for PA.
Commonly published instead: Nothing, mostly: the exam record on this site described the LDCE without any skill test, and the IBPS-prepared Information Handout lists only the CBT. A candidate reading only those would not know the skill test exists.
The HQ action plan of 27.06.2025 prints Paper IV for SSO, Paper II for LDC, Paper II and III for PA and Papers I and II for Stenographer, with dates, reporting times and the division of marks; the HQ scheme letter of 22.11.2024 gives the 17-of-50 benchmark.
HQ action plan of 27.06.2025 and HQ scheme letter of 22.11.2024 (official).
The Computer Skill Test
| Part | Task | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Part A | Prepare two slides or presentations in MS PowerPoint | 10 |
| Part B | Type a letter or passage of 150-200 words in MS Word | 20 |
| Part C | Prepare a table or database in MS Excel | 20 |
| Total | 30 minutes, qualifying; benchmark 17 of 50 | 50 |
The scheme and the plan print these three parts for SSO, PA and Stenographer. The LDC entry says only "Computer Skill Test (Qualifying in nature) (Medium: English/Hindi)", 50 marks and 30 minutes, with no parts, so the documents do not show that the LDC test used the same split. The slots differed too: SSO candidates sat the test from 9 to 9:30 am on 6 July 2025, LDC, PA and Stenographer candidates from 1 to 1:30 pm. The pass mark is 17 of 50 for every post (HQ letter of 22.11.2024). The documents do not say how the 30 minutes divide between the parts, whether they run in a fixed order, or whether typing is marked on speed, accuracy or both. The Gujarat LDC proforma asked the medium of the CST, Hindi or English, so the Word passage can be typed in Hindi if you chose it.
On our arithmetic, typing 200 words in a 30-minute test that also needs two slides and a spreadsheet leaves little slack: if you gave the Word part a third of the time, 10 minutes, 200 words needs 20 words a minute, and a letter format with a heading, reference and signature block takes longer than running text. The plan gives no speed standard for the CST, so the only honest advice is to practise all three parts inside one 30-minute window.
| Post | Computer Skill Test | Shorthand test |
|---|---|---|
| SSO / Manager Grade-II / OS | Paper IV, 06.07.2025, 9:00-9:30 am (reporting 8:30 am in the HQ revised plans; an earlier Karnataka schedule, superseded by the revision, said 8:00 am) | No |
| Assistant / Head Clerk | No | No |
| UDC | No | No |
| LDC | Paper II, 06.07.2025, 1:00-1:30 pm (reporting 12:30 pm); no parts printed | No |
| Personal Assistant | Paper II, 06.07.2025, 1:00-1:30 pm | Paper III, 100 or 120 wpm, from 3:00 pm (reporting 2:30 pm) |
| Stenographer | Paper I, 06.07.2025, 1:00-1:30 pm | Paper II, 80 wpm, from 3:00 pm |
The shorthand tests
| Test | Dictation | Transcription, English | Transcription, Hindi | Words per minute of transcription (ours) |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| PA at 120 wpm | 840 words in 7 minutes | 45 minutes | 55 minutes | 18.7 English, 15.3 Hindi |
| PA at 100 wpm | 1,000 words in 10 minutes | 50 minutes | 65 minutes | 20.0 English, 15.4 Hindi |
| Stenographer at 80 wpm | 10 minutes (word count not printed; 800 words on our arithmetic) | 65 minutes | 75 minutes | about 12.3 English, 10.7 Hindi, if 800 words |
The dictation figures check out: 840 words in 7 minutes is 120 words a minute, 1,000 words in 10 minutes is 100 (our division). For the Stenographer test the plan gives the speed and the ten minutes but not the word count; 80 × 10 = 800 is our arithmetic, not a printed figure. The last column divides the words by the transcription time and is ours too. It shows something worth knowing: the faster PA test is not the easier transcription. At 120 wpm you have fewer words but also less time, so the transcription pace is only slightly lower than at 100 wpm; the difference between the two options is in the dictation, not the typing.
The plan does not say whether transcription is on a computer or by hand, what error rate passes, or how the choice between 100 and 120 wpm affects a PA candidate’s standing. The eligibility circulars ask a PA candidate to hold 120 or 100 wpm and a Stenographer candidate to hold 80 wpm already; the test checks that speed on the day.
Practise against the clock
Choose a test and a language to see the numbers you must meet. Then start a countdown: either the full transcription time for that test and language, or the 30 minutes of the whole Computer Skill Test. The box counts the words you type and your pace, and stops taking input when the time runs out, as the real test would.
Shorthand and typing practice
Timings from the HQ action plan of 27.06.2025. Transcription pace and the 800-word Stenographer figure are our arithmetic. Nothing you type leaves this page.
A practice plan for the Computer Skill Test
The plan names the three tasks and the marks, nothing more. The practice routine below is ours, built only on what the plan says: one 30-minute window, three applications, and more marks for Word and Excel than for PowerPoint.
| Part | What to be able to do without thinking (our suggestion) | Common way to lose time (our view) |
|---|---|---|
| Part A, PowerPoint (10 marks) | Open a blank presentation, add a title slide and a content slide, set a layout, type a heading and points, save under the name you are given | Choosing designs and animations the task did not ask for |
| Part B, Word typing (20 marks) | Type a 150-200 word office letter or passage from print, in the medium you chose on your application, with the layout of the original | Correcting as you go instead of reading once at the end; hunting for Hindi keyboard settings on the day |
| Part C, Excel (20 marks) | Build a table with headings, enter rows, set column widths, add a total or simple formula if asked, save | Formatting cells before the data is in |
Do the three parts together, against one 30-minute timer, at least a few times before the day, on the same version of Office your region uses if you can find out which that is; the plan does not say. Ask your Regional Office which keyboard layout the Hindi typing uses: the documents are silent on it, and a layout you have never used can cost a qualifying test. For shorthand, the practice box above lets you time your transcription against the paces in the table; the dictation itself needs a reader or a recording at the exact speed.
Candidates with disabilities
Three provisions appear in the documents. First, the HQ scheme letter of 22.11.2024, repeated in the Delhi circular, says PwD candidates who are otherwise qualified and are certified "as being unable to type by the Medical Board attached to Special Employment Exchange ... (or by a Civil Surgeon where there is no such Board) should be exempted from CST" by the appointing authority. Second, among the arrangements the HQ action plan told Regional Offices to make for the skill tests of 6 July 2025 is "Provision of scribe to eligible applicants" under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment OM F. No. 34-02/2015-DD-III of 29.08.2018, its corrigendum of 08.02.2019 and the OM of 10.08.2022. Third, for candidates of the Directorate (Medical) Delhi, RO Delhi and Headquarters, the plan says details of "scribe/exemption from CST or appearing in Objective paper for CST" were to be obtained from the units concerned, so an objective paper in place of the CST was contemplated there. The plan does not settle compensatory time; ask your Regional Office before the day.
Why the Stenographer test may not return
The Stenographer LDCE of 2025 covered vacancy years 2019, 2020 and 2021 only, for vacancies arising up to 26.02.2021, "i.e. till the revision of RRs of the post" (J&K circular). The Delhi circular reported NIL Stenographer vacancies in its region. The documents do not say how Stenographer posts have been filled since the revision, so whether a Stenographer LDCE will be held again is unknown. The PA test, by contrast, ran for all seven vacancy years, and HQ Office Order 43 of 19.11.2025 promoted seven Stenographers to PA from it in the units that order covers (see the results guide).
Practical points for the skill-test day
- Bring your admit card for the skill test: the HQ action plan told Regional Offices to issue admit cards to candidates appearing on 06.07.2025 (RO Delhi issued them for D(M)D, RO Delhi and HQ candidates).
- Bring your ESIC Employee ID card, as for the CBT.
- The venue is fixed by your Regional Office, not by IBPS, and may differ from your CBT centre.
- PA and Stenographer candidates have two tests the same afternoon: the CST at 1 pm and shorthand reporting at 2:30 pm.
- The Computer Skill Test benchmark is 17 marks out of 50 (HQ letter of 22.11.2024). No pass standard for the shorthand tests is printed in the documents we read.
HQ action plan of 27.06.2025, the HQ letter of 22.11.2024 and the Information Handout (official).
What is in the ESIC LDCE Computer Skill Test?
For SSO, PA and Stenographer, three parts in 30 minutes for 50 marks: two PowerPoint slides (10 marks), typing a letter or passage of 150 to 200 words in MS Word (20 marks), and a table or database in MS Excel (20 marks). The LDC entry prints only a 50-mark, 30-minute qualifying test in English or Hindi, with no parts listed.
Which posts have a Computer Skill Test?
SSO, LDC, PA and Stenographer. Assistant/Head Clerk and UDC candidates have none.
Is the Computer Skill Test qualifying?
Yes. The scheme calls it "qualifying in nature", and the HQ letter of 22.11.2024 sets the benchmark at 17 marks out of 50.
What is the shorthand speed for the ESIC PA LDCE?
100 or 120 words a minute. At 100 wpm: 1,000 words in 10 minutes, then 50 minutes to transcribe in English or 65 in Hindi. At 120 wpm: 840 words in 7 minutes, then 45 minutes in English or 55 in Hindi.
What is the shorthand speed for the ESIC Stenographer LDCE?
80 words a minute for 10 minutes, with 65 minutes to transcribe in English or 75 in Hindi.
Can I type the CST passage in Hindi?
The Gujarat LDC application asked for the medium of the Computer Skill Test, Hindi or English, so a choice was offered at the application stage.
Are PwBD candidates exempted from the typing test?
Those certified by the Medical Board attached to the Special Employment Exchange, or a Civil Surgeon where there is none, as unable to type are exempted from the Computer Skill Test (HQ letter of 22.11.2024, repeated in the Delhi circular). Scribes were to be provided to eligible candidates, and for D(M)D, RO Delhi and HQ candidates the plan also mentions an objective paper in place of the CST.
Who conducts the ESIC LDCE skill test?
The Regional Offices, which arranged the venues and the stenography instructors in 2025. IBPS arranged the CBT venues.
Sources
- official — ESIC HQ Action Plan (revised), No. A-12023/5/2022-Exam (Comp. No. 20385) dated 27.06.2025: paper-wise pattern, dates, timings and skill tests for SSO, Assistant/Head Clerk, UDC, LDC, PA and Stenographer
- official — ESIC HQ letter No. A-12023/5/2022-Exam (Comp. No. 20385) dated 22.11.2024, as circulated by ESIC RO Karnataka (circular No. 53.A.12.27.06.2018.Estt dated 28.11.2024, with the SRO Mysore covering circular of 29.11.2024): vacancy years, a single online examination, year-wise select lists, regional and all-India cadres, the scheme of examination for all six posts, the qualifying benchmark, the PwD exemption from the CST; enclosing HQ letter F.No. A-36(11)/2012/LDCE/Exam dated 02.08.2013 on the SSO Paper III syllabus
- official — ESIC RO Jammu & Kashmir forwarding (30.06.2025) of the HQ revised action plan dated 25.06.2025 (scanned; read by OCR)
- official — ESIC RO Karnataka circular No. 53.A.12.27.06.2018.Estt (header dated 28.11.2024, text cites the HQ letter of 15.06.2025): schedule of the CBT, Computer Skill Test and Stenography Skill Test
- official — ESIC RO Delhi circular No. 11-A/36/38/1/2024/Rectt-1 (December 2024): SSO and PA; NIL Stenographer vacancy; seniors-considered rule; PwBD exemption from the Computer Skill Test; scheme letter of 22.11.2024 at console Sl. No. 9989/2024
- official — ESIC RO Gujarat circular No. 37.A.12.23.2024.LDCE.Estt dated 26.11.2024: eligibility per post, "a single examination shall be conducted in online mode", application proformas
- official — ESIC RO Kerala Memorandum No. 54.A.36.11.3.2022 dated 28.11.2024: eligibility per post and vacancy year (UDC: 12th pass and 5 years for 2019-2021, Level-2 and 5 years for 2022-2025; Stenographer: LDCs with 2 years regular service), applications by 04.12.2024
- official — ESIC RO Jammu & Kashmir circular No. A-12023/9/2023-ADMN dated 03.12.2024: posts, vacancy years 2019-2025, crucial dates, eligibility per post, inter-regional transfer rule, J&K vacancies (Annexure-A), application proforma
- official — ESIC Information Handout (prepared for the online examination of 5 July 2025, English): test structure per post, four options with one correct answer, "no penalty for wrong answers", no calculators, sample question types
- official — ESIC HQ Office Order No. 43 of 2025, F. No. A-12023/7/2025-E-II dated 19.11.2025: result of LDCE-2025 for Personal Assistant, vacancy years 2019-2025 (HQ, D(M)D and Odisha units), Level 7, acceptance by 21.11.2025, pay option under FR 22(I)(a)(i) (we cite row counts only)
official = a document published by the conducting body. reported = a news or coaching site we could not check against an original. Where sources disagree this page says so rather than picking one.
