Checked 16 October 2026. From the GDCE notifications of RRC/NCR (28.09.2026), RRC/CR (22.04.2026) and RRC/ECoR (07.08.2026, addendum 14.09.2026), and Western Railway’s notices on its 2023 notification. No CBT date has been notified for the NCR, CR or ECoR 2026 notifications (Western Railway’s 2023 Train Manager CBT is on 17, 24 and 29 October 2026); patterns can change by corrigendum.
The Railway General Departmental Competitive Examination (GDCE) lets a serving railway employee compete for a post normally filled by open recruitment. In 2026 three Railway Recruitment Cells published full notifications that we have read line by line: North Central Railway (GDCE-01/2026, 28 September 2026), Central Railway (GDCE-02/2026, 22 April 2026) and East Coast Railway (7 August 2026). All three now describe the exam the same way: a single-stage computer-based test (CBT) of multiple-choice questions, one paper for each category or group of posts, with one-third of the marks allotted to a question deducted for every wrong answer. This guide puts the pattern of every paper side by side so you know exactly what you are sitting.
NCR paras 5.2, 6.0 and General Instructions item 10; CR paras 3.3 and 10.0; ECoR paras 1.2, 1.6 and 1.10.
Where other pages get this wrong
Since Railway Board’s RBE 28/2026 of 23.03.2026, GDCE is one CBT “on the same pattern as is being followed presently for Direct Recruitment by RRBs in its second stage” — not the older departmental papers.
Commonly published instead: The pre-2026 pattern, for example a 100-question Train Manager paper split 40 / 30 / 30, printed as if it still applied.
NCR para 6.0 Table-A quotes the new rule and cites RBE 28/2026. Western Railway’s corrigendum to its 2023 notification (uploaded 25.05.2026) shows the change in its own table: Train Manager moved from 100 questions (GA 40, Maths 30, Reasoning 30) to 120 questions (GA 50, Maths 35, Reasoning 35) in the same 90 minutes. If a page still prints 100 questions for the Goods Train Manager paper, it is describing the old pattern. (The same Western Railway corrigendum still refers to a Part-A and Part-B for ALP and Technician-III under its 2023 notification; the 2026 notifications of NCR, CR and ECoR describe one ALP paper.)
Every GDCE 2026 paper at a glance
The table below is built from the 2026 notifications of NCR, CR and ECoR. Where the three agree, one line is shown; where they differ, the next section says how. NCR gives one mark to every question; CR’s tables do too, though its ALP paragraph states no marks per question; ECoR’s tables also show one mark, except one JE entry noted below.
| Post (pay level) | Questions | Time | Sections (questions) | After the CBT |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Assistant Loco Pilot (Level 2) | 100 | 120 min | Mathematics, General Intelligence & Reasoning, Basic Science & Engineering, Trade Specific Section — roughly 25 each (NCR, ECoR; CR sizes only the trade section, around 25) | CBAT (aptitude test), DV, medical |
| Technician Gr-III (Level 2) | 100 | 90 min | Mathematics 25, Reasoning 25, General Science 40, General Awareness 10 | DV, medical |
| Technician Gr-I Signal / Telecom (Level 5) | 100 | 90 min | General Awareness 10, Reasoning 15, Basics of Computers 20, Mathematics 20, Basic Science & Engineering 35 | DV, medical |
| Junior Engineer (Level 6) | 150 | 120 min | General Awareness 15, Physics & Chemistry 15, Basics of Computers 10, Environment & Pollution Control 10, Technical Abilities 100 | DV, medical |
| Goods Train Manager (Level 5), Station Master (Level 6) | 120 | 90 min | General Awareness 50, Mathematics 35, Reasoning 35 | Station Master: CBAT. Both: DV, medical |
| Commercial Clerk cum Ticket Clerk (Level 3) | 120 | 90 min | General Awareness 50, Mathematics 35, Reasoning 35 | DV, medical |
| Junior Clerk cum Typist, Accounts Clerk cum Typist (Level 2), Junior Account Assistant cum Typist (Level 5) | 120 | 90 min | General Awareness 50, Mathematics 35, Reasoning 35 | Typing skill test (qualifying), DV, medical |
| Nursing Superintendent (Level 7, CR only) | 100 | 90 min | Professional ability 70, General Awareness 10, Arithmetic with Reasoning 10, General Science 10 | DV, medical |
Sources: NCR Annexures A, B, C and D; CR para 9.0 (i) to (vi); ECoR paras 17.0 to 23.0. Most section splits are called “indicative” or “tentative”, with a warning that the actual paper may vary; CR prints its Nursing Superintendent split without that word, and gives no full ALP split. Junior Account Assistant cum Typist and Nursing Superintendent appear only in the CR notification; Goods Train Manager and Station Master appear in CR and ECoR, not in NCR.
Official indicative split from NCR Annexures A, B and D, CR para 9.0 and ECoR paras 17.0, 21.0 and 22.0. The four ALP bars follow NCR and ECoR; CR sizes only the ALP trade section (around 25). This is the notified, indicative weight of each section, not a count taken from a past question paper.
Where the three 2026 notifications differ
The core pattern is the same everywhere, but a candidate who reads only a summary can miss the details below. Each one is printed in the notification named in the table.
| Point | NCR (28.09.2026) | CR (22.04.2026) | ECoR (07.08.2026) |
|---|---|---|---|
| CBT language | English and Hindi only (para 5.2) | English, Hindi, Marathi and Kannada (para 8.0) | No CBT language clause; the CBAT is in English and Hindi (para 18.7) |
| ALP section split | Four parts, weightage roughly 25% each (Annexure A, Table-B) | No part-wise table; only the trade section is sized, around 25 questions (para 9.0(i)) | 25 + 25 + 25 + 25, weightage roughly as shown (para 17.0) |
| Minimum marks | UR 40, EWS 40, OBC-NCL 30, SC 30, ST 25 %; may be relaxed by 2% for PwBD if PwBD vacancies would otherwise go short (item 10) | Para 10.0-III: UR 40, OBC-NCL 30, SC 30, ST 25 %; the Technician paragraphs add EWS 40% and the 2% PwBD relaxation | UR 40, OBC-NCL 30, SC 30, ST 25 %; may be relaxed “by 2 marks” for PwBD on the same condition (para 1.10) |
| Posts with a 120-question paper | Commercial Clerk cum Ticket Clerk, Junior Clerk cum Typist | Goods Train Manager, Station Master, Junior Account Assistant cum Typist, Commercial Clerk cum Ticket Clerk, Accounts Clerk cum Typist, Junior Clerk cum Typist | Station Master, Goods Trains Manager, Junior Clerk cum Typist, Commercial Clerk cum Ticket Clerk (para 23.0; its vacancy table says “Ticket Collector”) |
| JE marks table | Technical Abilities 100 questions, 100 marks; total 150 | Technical Abilities 100 questions, 100 marks; total 150 | Prints 150 marks against Technical ability’s 100 questions — this looks like a misprint; ask ECoR before relying on it |
Sources as named in each cell. On the minimum marks, note that none of the three notifications reserves posts for EWS (NCR 4.1(ii), CR 7.0, ECoR 4.2), even where an EWS percentage is printed.
What happens after the CBT, post by post
Assistant Loco Pilot: CBT plus a computer-based aptitude test
For ALP, the RRC shortlists eight times the number of ALP vacancies in each community (UR including OBC creamy layer, OBC-NCL, SC, ST) for the Computer Based Aptitude Test (CBAT), on CBT marks; anyone tied at the cut-off point is also called. Each test battery must be cleared separately with a minimum T-score of 42, for every community, with no relaxation. The CBAT is in English and Hindi only and has no negative marking. The final ALP merit list is drawn only from those who clear the CBAT, with 50% weightage for CBT marks and 50% for the CBAT score in all three notifications (NCR and CR cite the Railway Board letter dated 16.04.2026). CR and ECoR add that shortlisted candidates must bring a Vision Certificate in the prescribed format, in original, to the CBAT.
Station Master: CBT plus CBAT, weighted 70 : 30
For Station Master (CR para 9.0(iv), ECoR para 18.0), eight times the vacancies in each community are shortlisted for the CBAT from those who opted for the post. The same T-score of 42 in each battery applies. The merit list gives 70% weightage to CBT marks and 30% to CBAT marks. Goods Train Manager has no aptitude test.
Clerk-typist posts: a typing test that only qualifies
Junior Clerk cum Typist, Accounts Clerk cum Typist and Junior Account Assistant cum Typist take a Computer Based Typing Skill Test after the CBT. Eight times the vacancies in each community are called. You must type 30 words a minute in English or 25 in Hindi on a computer, with no editing tools (NCR Annexure D, CR para 9.0(iv)–(v), ECoR para 22.5); NCR and CR also bar spell check. Typing marks are not added to merit; merit is on the CBT. PwBD candidates with at least 40% permanent disability of the kinds named may be exempted on a medical board certificate.
Every post: document verification equal to the vacancies
After the CBT (and the CBAT or typing test where it applies), candidates equal to the number of vacancies are called for document verification on merit and post preference (NCR item 19, CR 10.0-VII, ECoR 1.8). There is no supplementary CBT for anyone who is absent, for any reason (NCR 5.3, CR 3.0, ECoR 1.1).
Normalisation and merit index, in plain words
If a paper is held in more than one shift, raw marks are normalised. ECoR attaches the RRB normalisation notice of 09.02.2026 as Annexure F: each candidate’s raw marks become a percentile score within their own shift, calculated to five decimal places, and a normalised mark is read off the “base shift” (the shift with the highest mean, if its attendance is at least 70% of the average shift). The minimum-percentage check is then done on normalised marks.
Where one post draws candidates from different exam groups, as Junior Engineer does, a merit index is used (NCR para 8.0, CR’s normalisation section; ECoR para 5.0 also refers to it). NCR and CR print the formula: Merit Index = 350 + 550 × (M − 40) ÷ (Mt − 40), where M is your marks (raw for a single session, normalised for several), 40 is the value printed for Mq, the general-category qualifying marks (how it applies to a paper not marked out of 100 is not explained, so ask your RRC), and Mt is the mean of the top 0.1% or the top 10 candidates, whichever is larger. Our negative-marking guide works an example.
Exam-day rules that are part of the pattern
Exam-day rules in the 2026 notifications (zone named where only some say it)
- No calculator, mobile, smart watch, pen, pencil, wallet, belt or shoes inside the hall (NCR 5.5, CR 3.2, ECoR 8.0). NCR and CR say the JE paper has a virtual calculator on screen (NCR Annexure C; CR para 9.0(iii)); ECoR does not mention one.
- NCR: bring your railway identity card and a sparing letter with your photo, signed and stamped (photo attested) by your supervisor (13.4). CR and ECoR: a relieving letter, the e-call letter and a valid photo ID (CR 15.4, ECoR 14.4).
- Write the self-declaration paragraph only in the exam hall, in front of the invigilator — writing it in advance or signing in capital letters leads to rejection.
- Ties are broken by age (older first), then alphabetical order of the name (NCR item 18, CR 10.0-VI; ECoR 1.11 uses the given name, not the surname).
- Extra time for PwBD candidates using a scribe: Technician 120 minutes and JE 160 minutes (NCR, CR); the 120-question paper 120 minutes (NCR; CR except Goods Train Manager and Station Master; ECoR for Junior Clerk and Commercial Clerk); Nursing Superintendent 120 minutes (CR).
ProSyllabus is an independent study site, not part of Indian Railways or any Railway Recruitment Cell. Your own RRC’s notification, every corrigendum or notice it issues later, and the Railway Board rules they apply are the authority.
Practise it, don't just read it
In the NCR, CR and ECoR 2026 papers, Mathematics (or Arithmetic) and Reasoning appear in every paper except Junior Engineer, from ALP to Station Master. Practise them against the clock — 90 minutes for 120 questions leaves 45 seconds a question.
The ProSyllabus Railway GDCE library has topic quizzes on Mathematics and on General Intelligence and Reasoning, which appear (Mathematics sometimes as Arithmetic) in every 2026 GDCE paper of NCR, CR and ECoR except Junior Engineer. The first quiz is free.
Frequently asked questions
How many questions are in the Railway GDCE ALP paper?
100 questions in 120 minutes (NCR and ECoR: one mark each), in four parts of roughly 25 (NCR, ECoR): Mathematics, General Intelligence and Reasoning, Basic Science and Engineering, and the Trade Specific Section.
Is there negative marking in GDCE 2026?
Yes. One-third of the marks allotted to that question is deducted for each wrong answer in the CBT, for every post. The aptitude test (CBAT) has no negative marking.
How many questions are in the GDCE Goods Train Manager paper?
120 questions in 90 minutes: General Awareness 50, Mathematics 35, General Intelligence and Reasoning 35, in the CR and ECoR 2026 notifications.
Is the GDCE Technician paper the same for Grade I and Grade III?
No. There is a separate CBT for each pay level. Both are 100 questions in 90 minutes, but Grade III is Maths 25, Reasoning 25, General Science 40, GA 10, while Grade I Signal is GA 10, Reasoning 15, Computers 20, Maths 20, Basic Science and Engineering 35.
What is the minimum qualifying mark in GDCE?
UR 40%, OBC (non-creamy layer) 30%, SC 30%, ST 25%. NCR also lists EWS 40%, as do CR’s Technician paragraphs, though no GDCE notification reserves posts for EWS. A relaxation for PwBD candidates (2% in NCR, and in CR’s Technician rules; 2 marks in ECoR) applies only if PwBD vacancies would otherwise go unfilled.
Does the GDCE ALP have a Part-A and Part-B?
The 2026 notifications of NCR, CR and ECoR describe one 100-question paper with the trade section as its fourth part. Western Railway’s corrigendum for its older 2023 notification still refers to Part-A and Part-B; check your own RRC’s notification.
Is a calculator allowed in the GDCE CBT?
No physical calculator is allowed. NCR and CR say the JE paper shows a virtual calculator on the screen; ECoR does not mention one.
What is the CBAT weightage for ALP in GDCE?
In all three notifications the ALP merit list gives 50% weightage to CBT marks and 50% to the CBAT score; you must also score a T-score of at least 42 in each test battery.
What is the weightage for Station Master in GDCE?
70% for CBT marks and 30% for CBAT marks, among those who clear every CBAT battery with a T-score of 42 or more.
In which languages is the GDCE CBT?
NCR: English and Hindi only. CR: English, Hindi, Marathi and Kannada. The CBAT is in English and Hindi only.
When is the GDCE 2026 CBT?
Not notified yet by NCR, CR or ECoR; each says the date will be intimated in due course on its website.
Is the GDCE JE paper 150 questions?
Yes: 150 questions in 120 minutes, of which an indicative 100 are Technical Abilities for your exam group and 50 are general sections. ECoR’s table prints 150 marks for those 100 questions, which looks like a misprint.
Sources
- official — RRC/NCR Prayagraj — GDCE Notification No. RRC/NCR/GDCE-01/2026 (28.09.2026)
- official — RRC/CR Mumbai — GDCE Notification No. RRC/CR/GDCE-02/2026 (22.04.2026)
- official — RRC East Coast Railway — GDCE 2026 Notification No. ECoR/Pers/RRC-GDCE/2026 (07.08.2026), incl. Annexure F (RRB normalisation notice, 09.02.2026)
- official — RRC East Coast Railway — Addendum: JE syllabus and extension of closing date (14.09.2026)
- official — RRC Western Railway — Corrigendum for exam pattern, GDCE Notification 01/2023 (per RBE 28/2026), uploaded 25.05.2026
- official — RRC Western Railway — Notice for conduct of CBT, GDCE 01/2021 and 01/2023 (18.05.2026)
official = a document published by the conducting body. reported = a news or coaching site we could not check against an original. Where sources disagree this page says so rather than picking one.
